FCE is at Level B2 of the Common European Framework of Reference for Languages (CEFR) — an internationally recognised framework which Cambridge ESOL helped to develop. The framework uses six levels to describe language ability from A1 to C2. 'Can Do' statements have been used to describe these levels in terms of real skills with language.
For example, at B2 level, typical users can be expected to:
Understand the main ideas of complex pieces of writing.
Keep up a conversation on a fairly wide range of topics.
Expressing opinions and presenting arguments.
Produce clear, detailed writing, expressing opinions and explaining the advantages and disadvantages of different points of view.
Your preparation for FCE will give you these kinds of practical language skills.
What does FCE involve?
FCE has five papers:
Reading: 1 hour
You will need to be able to understand information in fiction and non-fiction books, journals, newspapers and magazines.
Writing: 1 hour 20 minutes
You will have to show you can produce two different pieces of writing such as a short story, a letter, an article, a report, a review or an essay.
Use of English: 45 minutes
Your use of English will be tested by tasks which show how well you control your grammar and vocabulary.
Listening: 40 minutes
You need to show you can understand the meaning of a range of spoken material, including news programmes, speeches, stories and anecdotes and public announcements.
Speaking: 14 minutes
You will take the Speaking test with another candidate or in a group of three, and you will be tested on your ability to take part in different types of interaction: with the examiner, with the other candidates and by yourself.
This blog is for students preparing to take the First Certificate in English Exam
The Reading Paper
PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE
In this part, there is an emphasis on detailed understanding of a text,
including the expression of opinion, attitude, purpose, main idea,
detail, tone and gist. Candidates are also tested on their ability to
recognise meaning from context and follow text organisation
features, such as exemplification, comparison and reference.
Part 1 consists of a text, followed by eight 4-option multiplechoice
questions which test the understanding of content and
text organisation. The text may be taken from, for example, an
article or a modern novel. Questions may focus on the main
ideas or details in the text, and on the attitudes or opinions
expressed. Candidates may also be asked to deduce the
meaning of a word or phrase and to demonstrate
understanding of references, such as pronouns, within the
text. Additionally, questions may focus on the tone of the text
or the writer’s purpose, as well as the use of exemplification or
comparison. These questions may require candidates to infer
the meaning from clues in the text, a skill which is an
essential part of reading ability.
The 4-option multiple choice questions are presented in the
same order as the information in the text so that candidates
can follow the development of the writer’s ideas as they work
through the questions. The final question may require
candidates to interpret an aspect of the text as a whole.
PART 2: GAPPED TEXT
In this part, there is an emphasis on text structure, cohesion and
coherence, and candidates’ ability to follow the development of a long
text.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 2 marks.
Part 2 consists of one text from which seven sentences have
been removed and placed in jumbled order after the text,
together with an eighth sentence which does not fit in any of
the gaps. Candidates are required to decide from where in the
text each sentence has been removed. Each sentence may be
used only once, and there is one sentence that candidates do
not need to use. The task tests understanding of how texts are
structured.
Rather than concentrating on individual sentences, candidates
need to be able to follow the development of ideas, opinions
and events through the text as a whole, using their
understanding of text coherence and cohesion devices. This
task is particularly effective in helping to distinguish between
stronger and weaker candidates at FCE level.
PART 3: MULTIPLE MATCHING
In this part, there is an emphasis on locating specific information and
detail, and recognising opinion and attitude, in one long text or a
group of short texts.
Each correct answer in Part 3 receives 1 mark.
Part 3 consists of one long text or up to six shorter texts,
preceded by 15 questions. Candidates are required to locate
the specific information which matches the questions. To do
this, they need to understand detail, attitude or opinion in the
question and locate a section of text where that idea is
expressed, discounting ideas in other sections which may
appear similar but which do not reflect the whole of the
question accurately. Some of the options may be correct for
more than one question, and there may be more than one
correct answer to some questions. If so, the instructions to
candidates will say this.
In this part, there is an emphasis on detailed understanding of a text,
including the expression of opinion, attitude, purpose, main idea,
detail, tone and gist. Candidates are also tested on their ability to
recognise meaning from context and follow text organisation
features, such as exemplification, comparison and reference.
Part 1 consists of a text, followed by eight 4-option multiplechoice
questions which test the understanding of content and
text organisation. The text may be taken from, for example, an
article or a modern novel. Questions may focus on the main
ideas or details in the text, and on the attitudes or opinions
expressed. Candidates may also be asked to deduce the
meaning of a word or phrase and to demonstrate
understanding of references, such as pronouns, within the
text. Additionally, questions may focus on the tone of the text
or the writer’s purpose, as well as the use of exemplification or
comparison. These questions may require candidates to infer
the meaning from clues in the text, a skill which is an
essential part of reading ability.
The 4-option multiple choice questions are presented in the
same order as the information in the text so that candidates
can follow the development of the writer’s ideas as they work
through the questions. The final question may require
candidates to interpret an aspect of the text as a whole.
PART 2: GAPPED TEXT
In this part, there is an emphasis on text structure, cohesion and
coherence, and candidates’ ability to follow the development of a long
text.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 2 marks.
Part 2 consists of one text from which seven sentences have
been removed and placed in jumbled order after the text,
together with an eighth sentence which does not fit in any of
the gaps. Candidates are required to decide from where in the
text each sentence has been removed. Each sentence may be
used only once, and there is one sentence that candidates do
not need to use. The task tests understanding of how texts are
structured.
Rather than concentrating on individual sentences, candidates
need to be able to follow the development of ideas, opinions
and events through the text as a whole, using their
understanding of text coherence and cohesion devices. This
task is particularly effective in helping to distinguish between
stronger and weaker candidates at FCE level.
PART 3: MULTIPLE MATCHING
In this part, there is an emphasis on locating specific information and
detail, and recognising opinion and attitude, in one long text or a
group of short texts.
Each correct answer in Part 3 receives 1 mark.
Part 3 consists of one long text or up to six shorter texts,
preceded by 15 questions. Candidates are required to locate
the specific information which matches the questions. To do
this, they need to understand detail, attitude or opinion in the
question and locate a section of text where that idea is
expressed, discounting ideas in other sections which may
appear similar but which do not reflect the whole of the
question accurately. Some of the options may be correct for
more than one question, and there may be more than one
correct answer to some questions. If so, the instructions to
candidates will say this.
The Writing Paper
Each question on the Writing paper carries equal
marks.
Expected word length
Candidates are asked to write 120–150 words for Part 1 and
120–180 words for Part 2.
Writing approximately the right number of words is an
integral part of task achievement. If significantly fewer words
are written, this is likely to mean that the task has not been
successfully completed, whereas overlong pieces of writing
may involve irrelevance, repetition of ideas, poor organisation
and have a negative effect on the target reader.
PART 1: COMPULSORY TASK
This part tests the candidates’ ability to respond to a letter or email,
and accompanying notes.
Task type and focus:
In Part 1, the task will be in the form of a letter or email, with
notes or prompts to be addressed. The range of functions
tested may include expressing enthusiasm, requesting and
giving information, explaining, apologising, thanking,
suggesting and expressing preferences. Candidates are
expected to respond to both the letter and email in
grammatically correct English, and should note that
abbreviated text style language is not acceptable. Both letters
and emails should have an opening salutation, paragraphing
and closing phrasing (although no postal addresses are
required for the letter). The degree of formality required in the
task will vary according to the situation and the target reader;
candidates are expected to assess this from the information
given in the instructions and the tone of the input letter or
email.
Task format:
The input for Part 1 is approximately 160 words in total. It is
made up of a text (letter or email) and notes, and may be
supported by visuals or attachments such as a photo,
timetable or advertisement.Widely used abbreviations such as
N.B, e.g., and etc. may also appear as part of the input. It is
very important that candidates cover all of the essential
points of the input in their answer so that the target reader is
fully informed. Candidates should be aware that the overall
aim of the task is to achieve a positive effect on the target
reader. Organisation and cohesion, clear layout, use of register
appropriate for the audience, control and accuracy of language
are all important features of task achievement. Some evidence
of range of language is also required, which means building on
key words from the input rather than ‘lifting’ whole segments.
Part 1 tasks often offer the candidates the opportunity to add a
piece of information, or make a suggestion or request of their
own, and this enables them to demonstrate the range of their
language.
PART 2.
This part consists of four questions from which candidates must
choose one. One of the four questions offers two options based on set
texts. (There are two set texts, and one question will be offered on
each).
Task format:
The input for these five tasks is considerably less than in
Part 1. Each writing task in Part 2 has a context, a purpose for
writing and a target reader specified in no more than
70 words.
Attention to every element in the question is essential for
effective task achievement and candidates should consider
carefully what level of formality is appropriate to the task.
PART 2: QUESTIONS 2–5
Task type and focus:
In Part 2, candidates have a choice of tasks. Questions 2–4 are
general questions, based on a range of topics, such as health
and fitness, sport,music and so on. The tasks for questions
2–4 may include any of the following task types: an article, an
essay, a letter, a report, a review, a story. Questions 5(a) and
5(b) are based on two set texts. There will be one question on
each of the set texts (see following section).
As with Part 1, candidates are expected to show that they are
aware of the kind of writing required to accomplish a task, and
must be able to demonstrate appropriate use of one or more of
the following functions: describing, explaining, expressing an
opinion, giving information, narrating.
The different task types are intended to provide guidance for
the candidates, so they can put together and develop their
ideas on a topic, with a purpose for writing and a target reader
in mind.
marks.
Expected word length
Candidates are asked to write 120–150 words for Part 1 and
120–180 words for Part 2.
Writing approximately the right number of words is an
integral part of task achievement. If significantly fewer words
are written, this is likely to mean that the task has not been
successfully completed, whereas overlong pieces of writing
may involve irrelevance, repetition of ideas, poor organisation
and have a negative effect on the target reader.
PART 1: COMPULSORY TASK
This part tests the candidates’ ability to respond to a letter or email,
and accompanying notes.
Task type and focus:
In Part 1, the task will be in the form of a letter or email, with
notes or prompts to be addressed. The range of functions
tested may include expressing enthusiasm, requesting and
giving information, explaining, apologising, thanking,
suggesting and expressing preferences. Candidates are
expected to respond to both the letter and email in
grammatically correct English, and should note that
abbreviated text style language is not acceptable. Both letters
and emails should have an opening salutation, paragraphing
and closing phrasing (although no postal addresses are
required for the letter). The degree of formality required in the
task will vary according to the situation and the target reader;
candidates are expected to assess this from the information
given in the instructions and the tone of the input letter or
email.
Task format:
The input for Part 1 is approximately 160 words in total. It is
made up of a text (letter or email) and notes, and may be
supported by visuals or attachments such as a photo,
timetable or advertisement.Widely used abbreviations such as
N.B, e.g., and etc. may also appear as part of the input. It is
very important that candidates cover all of the essential
points of the input in their answer so that the target reader is
fully informed. Candidates should be aware that the overall
aim of the task is to achieve a positive effect on the target
reader. Organisation and cohesion, clear layout, use of register
appropriate for the audience, control and accuracy of language
are all important features of task achievement. Some evidence
of range of language is also required, which means building on
key words from the input rather than ‘lifting’ whole segments.
Part 1 tasks often offer the candidates the opportunity to add a
piece of information, or make a suggestion or request of their
own, and this enables them to demonstrate the range of their
language.
PART 2.
This part consists of four questions from which candidates must
choose one. One of the four questions offers two options based on set
texts. (There are two set texts, and one question will be offered on
each).
Task format:
The input for these five tasks is considerably less than in
Part 1. Each writing task in Part 2 has a context, a purpose for
writing and a target reader specified in no more than
70 words.
Attention to every element in the question is essential for
effective task achievement and candidates should consider
carefully what level of formality is appropriate to the task.
PART 2: QUESTIONS 2–5
Task type and focus:
In Part 2, candidates have a choice of tasks. Questions 2–4 are
general questions, based on a range of topics, such as health
and fitness, sport,music and so on. The tasks for questions
2–4 may include any of the following task types: an article, an
essay, a letter, a report, a review, a story. Questions 5(a) and
5(b) are based on two set texts. There will be one question on
each of the set texts (see following section).
As with Part 1, candidates are expected to show that they are
aware of the kind of writing required to accomplish a task, and
must be able to demonstrate appropriate use of one or more of
the following functions: describing, explaining, expressing an
opinion, giving information, narrating.
The different task types are intended to provide guidance for
the candidates, so they can put together and develop their
ideas on a topic, with a purpose for writing and a target reader
in mind.
The Use of English Paper
PART 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE CLOZE
In this part, there is an emphasis on vocabulary and grammar.
Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark.
Part 1 consists of a text in which there are 12 gaps (plus one
gap as an example). Each gap represents a missing word or
phrase. The text is followed by 12 sets of four words or
phrases, each set corresponding to a gap. Candidates have to
choose which one of the four words or phrases in the set fills
the gap correctly.
Candidates are required to draw on their lexical knowledge
and understanding of the text in order to fill the gaps. Some
questions test at a phrasal level, such as collocations and set
phrases. Other questions test meaning at sentence level or
beyond, with more processing of the text required. A lexicogrammatical
element may be involved, such as when
candidates have to choose the option which fits correctly with
a following preposition or verb form.
PART 2: OPEN CLOZE
In this part, there is an emphasis on grammar and vocabulary.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark.
Part 2 consists of a text in which there are 12 gaps (plus one
gap as an example). Candidates are required to draw on their
knowledge of the structure of the language and understanding
of the text in order to fill the gaps. In this part, as there are no
sets of words from which to choose the answers, candidates
have to think of a word which will fill the gap correctly.
The focus of the gapped words is either grammatical, such as
articles, auxiliaries, prepositions, pronouns, verb tenses and
forms, or lexico-grammatical, such as phrasal verbs, linkers
and words within fixed phrases. The answer will always be a
single word. In some cases, there may be more than one
possible answer and this is allowed for in the mark scheme.
The absence or misuse of punctuation is ignored, although
spelling, as in all parts of the Use of English paper,must be
correct.
PART 3: WORD FORMATION
In this part, there is an emphasis on vocabulary.
Each correct answer in Part 3 receives 1 mark.
Part 3 consists of a text containing 10 gaps (plus one gap as an
example). At the end of some of the lines, and separated from
the text, there is a stem word in capital letters. Candidates
need to form an appropriate word from given stem words to
fill each gap.
The focus of this task is primarily lexical, though an
understanding of structure is also required. It tests the
candidates’ knowledge of how prefixes, suffixes, internal
changes and compounds are used in forming words.
Candidates may be required to demonstrate understanding of
the text beyond sentence level.
PART 4: KEY WORD TRANSFORMATIONS
In this part, there is an emphasis on grammar and vocabulary
Each answer in Part 4 receives up to 2 marks.
Part 4 consists of eight questions (plus an example). Each
question contains three parts: a lead-in sentence, a key word,
and a second sentence of which only the beginning and end
are given. Candidates have to fill the gap in the second
sentence so that the completed sentence is similar in meaning
to the lead-in sentence. The gap must be filled with between
two and five words, one of which must be the key word. The
key word must not be changed in any way.
In this part of the paper the focus is both lexical and
grammatical and a range of structures is tested. The ability to
express a message in different ways shows flexibility and
resource in the use of language.
The mark scheme splits the answer into two parts and
candidates gain one mark for each part which is correct.
In this part, there is an emphasis on vocabulary and grammar.
Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark.
Part 1 consists of a text in which there are 12 gaps (plus one
gap as an example). Each gap represents a missing word or
phrase. The text is followed by 12 sets of four words or
phrases, each set corresponding to a gap. Candidates have to
choose which one of the four words or phrases in the set fills
the gap correctly.
Candidates are required to draw on their lexical knowledge
and understanding of the text in order to fill the gaps. Some
questions test at a phrasal level, such as collocations and set
phrases. Other questions test meaning at sentence level or
beyond, with more processing of the text required. A lexicogrammatical
element may be involved, such as when
candidates have to choose the option which fits correctly with
a following preposition or verb form.
PART 2: OPEN CLOZE
In this part, there is an emphasis on grammar and vocabulary.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark.
Part 2 consists of a text in which there are 12 gaps (plus one
gap as an example). Candidates are required to draw on their
knowledge of the structure of the language and understanding
of the text in order to fill the gaps. In this part, as there are no
sets of words from which to choose the answers, candidates
have to think of a word which will fill the gap correctly.
The focus of the gapped words is either grammatical, such as
articles, auxiliaries, prepositions, pronouns, verb tenses and
forms, or lexico-grammatical, such as phrasal verbs, linkers
and words within fixed phrases. The answer will always be a
single word. In some cases, there may be more than one
possible answer and this is allowed for in the mark scheme.
The absence or misuse of punctuation is ignored, although
spelling, as in all parts of the Use of English paper,must be
correct.
PART 3: WORD FORMATION
In this part, there is an emphasis on vocabulary.
Each correct answer in Part 3 receives 1 mark.
Part 3 consists of a text containing 10 gaps (plus one gap as an
example). At the end of some of the lines, and separated from
the text, there is a stem word in capital letters. Candidates
need to form an appropriate word from given stem words to
fill each gap.
The focus of this task is primarily lexical, though an
understanding of structure is also required. It tests the
candidates’ knowledge of how prefixes, suffixes, internal
changes and compounds are used in forming words.
Candidates may be required to demonstrate understanding of
the text beyond sentence level.
PART 4: KEY WORD TRANSFORMATIONS
In this part, there is an emphasis on grammar and vocabulary
Each answer in Part 4 receives up to 2 marks.
Part 4 consists of eight questions (plus an example). Each
question contains three parts: a lead-in sentence, a key word,
and a second sentence of which only the beginning and end
are given. Candidates have to fill the gap in the second
sentence so that the completed sentence is similar in meaning
to the lead-in sentence. The gap must be filled with between
two and five words, one of which must be the key word. The
key word must not be changed in any way.
In this part of the paper the focus is both lexical and
grammatical and a range of structures is tested. The ability to
express a message in different ways shows flexibility and
resource in the use of language.
The mark scheme splits the answer into two parts and
candidates gain one mark for each part which is correct.
The Listening Paper
PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE
This part tests candidates’ ability to listen for gist, detail, function,
purpose, attitude, opinion, relationship, topic, place, situation, genre,
agreement, etc. in a series of unrelated short texts.
Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark.
The eight questions in this part of the paper are presented
both on the question paper and on the recording, so that
candidates are led carefully through them. The testing focus is
spelled out in each question, for example:
• What is her job?
• Where is he going?
• Who are they talking about?
• What emotion/attitude/feeling/opinion is being
expressed?
PART 2: SENTENCE COMPLETION
This part tests candidates’ ability to listen for specific words or
phrases focusing on detail, specific information and stated opinion,
from a single long text, and produce written answers by completing
gapped sentences.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark.
The 10 questions in this part of the paper take the form of
incomplete sentences. The questions follow the order of the
information in the listening text. Candidates need to listen to
the text and complete the sentences.
Answers will not exceed three words in length. The word,
number or phrase they require will be heard on the recording
and will not require any change. It will make sense when
fitted into the sentence on the question paper. Minor spelling
errors are not penalised, but the candidate’s intention must be
clear and unambiguous. Candidates will not be asked to spell
words which are above FCE level. However, spelling must be
correct where a word has been spelled out letter by letter, for
example where the key is a proper name.
PART 3: MULTIPLE MATCHING
In Part 3, the focus is on the skill of listening for general gist, detail,
function, purpose, attitude, opinion, relationship, topic, place,
situation, genre, agreement, etc. Candidates need to match an option
to the correct speaker.
Each correct answer in Part 3 receives 1 mark.
In this part, candidates listen to five short texts with different
speakers, which are related in some way. For example, they
may all be speaking about aspects of the same subject, such as
travel, or about similar experiences or objects, such as
journeys or vehicles. Alternatively, the link may be functional,
such as a series of different speakers asking for information,
or apologising.
PART 4: MULTIPLE CHOICE
In Part 4, the predominant focus is on testing the candidates’ ability
to listen for opinion and attitude, expressed in gist, main idea, and
specific information, and based on one long text.
Each correct answer in Part 4 receives 1 mark.
The seven questions in this part of the paper take the form of
3-option multiple-choice questions. The questions follow the
order of the speakers’ comments as expressed during the
course of the recording, and are presented in such a way that
they either rephrase, report or summarise the ideas being
expressed.
This part tests candidates’ ability to listen for gist, detail, function,
purpose, attitude, opinion, relationship, topic, place, situation, genre,
agreement, etc. in a series of unrelated short texts.
Each correct answer in Part 1 receives 1 mark.
The eight questions in this part of the paper are presented
both on the question paper and on the recording, so that
candidates are led carefully through them. The testing focus is
spelled out in each question, for example:
• What is her job?
• Where is he going?
• Who are they talking about?
• What emotion/attitude/feeling/opinion is being
expressed?
PART 2: SENTENCE COMPLETION
This part tests candidates’ ability to listen for specific words or
phrases focusing on detail, specific information and stated opinion,
from a single long text, and produce written answers by completing
gapped sentences.
Each correct answer in Part 2 receives 1 mark.
The 10 questions in this part of the paper take the form of
incomplete sentences. The questions follow the order of the
information in the listening text. Candidates need to listen to
the text and complete the sentences.
Answers will not exceed three words in length. The word,
number or phrase they require will be heard on the recording
and will not require any change. It will make sense when
fitted into the sentence on the question paper. Minor spelling
errors are not penalised, but the candidate’s intention must be
clear and unambiguous. Candidates will not be asked to spell
words which are above FCE level. However, spelling must be
correct where a word has been spelled out letter by letter, for
example where the key is a proper name.
PART 3: MULTIPLE MATCHING
In Part 3, the focus is on the skill of listening for general gist, detail,
function, purpose, attitude, opinion, relationship, topic, place,
situation, genre, agreement, etc. Candidates need to match an option
to the correct speaker.
Each correct answer in Part 3 receives 1 mark.
In this part, candidates listen to five short texts with different
speakers, which are related in some way. For example, they
may all be speaking about aspects of the same subject, such as
travel, or about similar experiences or objects, such as
journeys or vehicles. Alternatively, the link may be functional,
such as a series of different speakers asking for information,
or apologising.
PART 4: MULTIPLE CHOICE
In Part 4, the predominant focus is on testing the candidates’ ability
to listen for opinion and attitude, expressed in gist, main idea, and
specific information, and based on one long text.
Each correct answer in Part 4 receives 1 mark.
The seven questions in this part of the paper take the form of
3-option multiple-choice questions. The questions follow the
order of the speakers’ comments as expressed during the
course of the recording, and are presented in such a way that
they either rephrase, report or summarise the ideas being
expressed.
The Speaking Test
Format
The paired format for the FCE Speaking test (two examiners
and two candidates) offers candidates the opportunity to
demonstrate, in a controlled but friendly environment, their
ability to use their spoken language skills effectively. The test
takes 14 minutes. One examiner, the interlocutor, conducts the
test and gives a global assessment of each candidate’s
performance. The other, the assessor, does not take any part in
the interaction but focuses solely on listening to, and making
an assessment of, each candidate’s oral proficiency.
At the end of the Speaking test, candidates are thanked for
attending. They are given no indication of the level of their
achievement.
The standard format is two examiners and two candidates. In
cases where there is an uneven number of candidates at a
centre, the last Speaking test of the session will be taken by
three candidates together instead of two. When three
candidates are tested together, the test format, test material
and procedure will remain unchanged, but the timing will be
longer: 20 minutes instead of 14.
The Speaking test consists of four parts, each of which is
assessed. Each part of the test focuses on a different type of
interaction: between the interlocutor and each candidate,
between the two candidates, and among all three. The
patterns of discourse vary within each part of the test.
PART 1: INTERVIEW
This part tests the candidates’ ability to use social and interactional
language.
Part 1 gives candidates the opportunity to show their ability to
use general social and interactional language and to give basic
personal information about themselves. The questions which
are asked relate to the candidates’ own lives and focus on
areas such as work, leisure time and future plans. Candidates
are expected to respond to the interlocutor’s questions, and to
listen to what their partner has to say.
The candidates are not actively invited to talk to each other in
this part of the test, though they may if they wish. This short
social exchange is a natural way to begin an interaction, and it
gives candidates time to settle before dealing with the more
specific tasks in Parts 2, 3 and 4.
PART 2: LONG TURN
This part tests the candidates’ ability to produce an extended piece of
discourse.
In Part 2, candidates are given the opportunity to speak for 1
minute without interruption. Each candidate is asked to
compare two colour photographs, and to make a further
comment about them in response to a task that is read out by
the interlocutor. A prompt is given to the candidates in the
form of a direct question; this is written above the
photographs. Candidates are expected to point out the
similarities and differences between the photographs and
then move on to deal with the question.
Candidates have the opportunity to show their ability to
organise their thoughts and ideas, and express themselves
coherently with appropriate language. The listening candidate
is also asked to comment briefly (for about 20 seconds) after
their partner’s long turn. They should not speak during their
partner’s long turn.
PART 3: COLLABORATIVE TASK
This part tests the candidates’ ability to engage in a discussion and
to work towards a negotiated outcome of the task set.
In Part 3, candidates are given oral instructions and provided
with a visual stimulus (several photographs or pieces of
artwork) to form the basis for a task which they carry out
together. They are expected to discuss each visual, expressing
and justifying opinions, evaluating and speculating, in order to
work towards a negotiated decision towards the end of the
task. The instructions make these two parts of the task clear:
‘First, talk to each other about …’. ‘Then decide …’. The
decision should only be made after the candidates have
explored each of the issues as illustrated by the pictures, and
they are assessed on their ability to use the language of
negotiation and collaboration while doing this. However, they
are not penalised if they fail to reach a negotiated decision.
Written prompts, in the form of questions, appear above the
visuals on the candidates’ sheet to help them focus on the
task.
There is no right or wrong answer to the task. The task gives
candidates the opportunity to show their range of language
and their ability to invite the opinions and ideas of their
partner. Candidates are expected to share the interaction in
this way and to initiate and respond appropriately.
PART 4: DISCUSSION
This part tests the candidates’ ability to engage in a discussion based
on the topic of the collaborative task in Part 3
In Part 4, the interlocutor directs the interaction by asking
questions which encourage the candidates to broaden and
discuss further the topics introduced in Part 3. The questions
differ from Part 1 in that they ask primarily for an evaluation
rather than for information.
This part of the test gives candidates an opportunity to show
that they are capable of discussing issues in more depth than
in the earlier parts of the test.
Here is a sample video of the Speaking Test (parts 1 and 2)
Now watch parts 3 and 4.
The paired format for the FCE Speaking test (two examiners
and two candidates) offers candidates the opportunity to
demonstrate, in a controlled but friendly environment, their
ability to use their spoken language skills effectively. The test
takes 14 minutes. One examiner, the interlocutor, conducts the
test and gives a global assessment of each candidate’s
performance. The other, the assessor, does not take any part in
the interaction but focuses solely on listening to, and making
an assessment of, each candidate’s oral proficiency.
At the end of the Speaking test, candidates are thanked for
attending. They are given no indication of the level of their
achievement.
The standard format is two examiners and two candidates. In
cases where there is an uneven number of candidates at a
centre, the last Speaking test of the session will be taken by
three candidates together instead of two. When three
candidates are tested together, the test format, test material
and procedure will remain unchanged, but the timing will be
longer: 20 minutes instead of 14.
The Speaking test consists of four parts, each of which is
assessed. Each part of the test focuses on a different type of
interaction: between the interlocutor and each candidate,
between the two candidates, and among all three. The
patterns of discourse vary within each part of the test.
PART 1: INTERVIEW
This part tests the candidates’ ability to use social and interactional
language.
Part 1 gives candidates the opportunity to show their ability to
use general social and interactional language and to give basic
personal information about themselves. The questions which
are asked relate to the candidates’ own lives and focus on
areas such as work, leisure time and future plans. Candidates
are expected to respond to the interlocutor’s questions, and to
listen to what their partner has to say.
The candidates are not actively invited to talk to each other in
this part of the test, though they may if they wish. This short
social exchange is a natural way to begin an interaction, and it
gives candidates time to settle before dealing with the more
specific tasks in Parts 2, 3 and 4.
PART 2: LONG TURN
This part tests the candidates’ ability to produce an extended piece of
discourse.
In Part 2, candidates are given the opportunity to speak for 1
minute without interruption. Each candidate is asked to
compare two colour photographs, and to make a further
comment about them in response to a task that is read out by
the interlocutor. A prompt is given to the candidates in the
form of a direct question; this is written above the
photographs. Candidates are expected to point out the
similarities and differences between the photographs and
then move on to deal with the question.
Candidates have the opportunity to show their ability to
organise their thoughts and ideas, and express themselves
coherently with appropriate language. The listening candidate
is also asked to comment briefly (for about 20 seconds) after
their partner’s long turn. They should not speak during their
partner’s long turn.
PART 3: COLLABORATIVE TASK
This part tests the candidates’ ability to engage in a discussion and
to work towards a negotiated outcome of the task set.
In Part 3, candidates are given oral instructions and provided
with a visual stimulus (several photographs or pieces of
artwork) to form the basis for a task which they carry out
together. They are expected to discuss each visual, expressing
and justifying opinions, evaluating and speculating, in order to
work towards a negotiated decision towards the end of the
task. The instructions make these two parts of the task clear:
‘First, talk to each other about …’. ‘Then decide …’. The
decision should only be made after the candidates have
explored each of the issues as illustrated by the pictures, and
they are assessed on their ability to use the language of
negotiation and collaboration while doing this. However, they
are not penalised if they fail to reach a negotiated decision.
Written prompts, in the form of questions, appear above the
visuals on the candidates’ sheet to help them focus on the
task.
There is no right or wrong answer to the task. The task gives
candidates the opportunity to show their range of language
and their ability to invite the opinions and ideas of their
partner. Candidates are expected to share the interaction in
this way and to initiate and respond appropriately.
PART 4: DISCUSSION
This part tests the candidates’ ability to engage in a discussion based
on the topic of the collaborative task in Part 3
In Part 4, the interlocutor directs the interaction by asking
questions which encourage the candidates to broaden and
discuss further the topics introduced in Part 3. The questions
differ from Part 1 in that they ask primarily for an evaluation
rather than for information.
This part of the test gives candidates an opportunity to show
that they are capable of discussing issues in more depth than
in the earlier parts of the test.
Here is a sample video of the Speaking Test (parts 1 and 2)
Now watch parts 3 and 4.
Suscribirse a:
Entradas (Atom)